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Re: [BKARTS] artists' books vs artists books



the apopostrophe at the end indicates plural and possesive.  no apostrophe
is not posseisive, and is used incorrectly in that instance.  it is merely
plural.

-----Original Message-----
From: Book_Arts-L [mailto:BOOK_ARTS-L@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx]On Behalf Of
Transient Books
Sent: Friday, May 30, 2008 11:12 AM
To: BOOK_ARTS-L@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: [BKARTS] artists' books vs artists books


I have to admit I'm a bit embarrassed to post this, but I was asked the
question and did not have the answer...and if the book arts list serv can't
answer the question, no one can.
Why is the term "artists' books" punctuated so? (With the apostrophe?)
Is there a difference between the two terminologies: artists' books and
artists books?
Is one deemed more "correct" than the other?

Thanks,
Alex Appella
www.transientbooks.com

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           NOW ONLINE, The Bonefolder, Vol. 4, No. 2, 2008 at
                 <http://www.philobiblon.com/bonefolder>
                                    
             For all your subscription questions, go to the
                      Book_Arts-L FAQ and Archive.
         See <http://www.philobiblon.com> for full information.
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